Hey. I've been re-reading Wolfram von Eschenbach's "Parzival," and at
one point he says that Parzival's father, Gahmuret, went to serve the
"Baruch of Baghdad," a position which most scholars identify as being
the Caliph.
While I'm aware the Wolfram was far from being the most detailed
scholar, the timeline on this is giving me quite a headache. Most
scholars identify the historical Arthur as having lived sometime in the
late fifth century/early sixth century. The first Muslim caliph,
however, Abu Bakr, did not rise to power until the middle of the
seventh century (632, to be precise).
How is it possible for Gahmuret to serve a Caliph of Baghdad, and for
his son many years *later* than that to serve Arthur? Is this just an
example of Wolfram's literary license?
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