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Alternative > Parallel Universes > Math and Parall...
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Math and Parallel universes

by Jim Akerlund <"Jim (picrosser"@[EMAIL PROTECTED] )> Mar 4, 2004 at 11:54 AM

Hi,

You know all those wonderful theories of 20th century science (string
theory, relativity, quantum mechanics).  They all used math as a basis
for their existance, so until Parallel universes start getting some math
in them, we are just wasting our time.  On that note, I will show you a
math based model of Parallel universes.  Warning, you will see some
equations!

pi/4 = 1 - 1/3 + 1/5 - 1/7 + 1/9 - 1/11 + ...

This equation calculates the value of Pi (3.14159...), it is called
Liebniz' equation.  There are many equations that calculate pi.  This
one is unique because it uses only numbers and four signs (+,-,=, and
/).  Other equations that calculate pi use arctangents or square roots
or other things.  I point this out to you because real soon you are
going to be questioning me about it.

Now pi is the ratio between a circles cir***ference and its diameter.
In Non-euclidian geometery, you can create geometeries where pi is
greater then 3.14159.. (Hyperbolic Geometery), and geometeries where pi
is less then 3.14159... (Elliptic Geometery), but all these geometeries
have a "flaw" where the smaller the space you measure the closer pi will
get too 3.14159...  Now if you have seen it I just presented you with a
paradox.  The paradox is, how can you be in a (let's say) a Hyperbolic
geometery and calculate two
different values of pi at the same time?  One by the space you are in
and the other by math.  Where did math separate from space?  Liebniz'
equation above always calculates the same value of pi no matter what
space you are in.

So let us say we are in a space where the value of pi is different from
3.14159..., and we want this space to also be shown in Liebniz
equation.  How would we go about doing this?  I ask the question because
I am going to give you an answer, an answer that involves Parallel
universes.  You will debate whether my answer is the correct one and
some of you may even come up with answers that don't involve parallel
universes. Best of luck!

I noted above that Liebniz' equation uses only numbers and four signs
(+,-,=, and /).  We can move the 4 to the other side of the equals sign
and get,

pi = 4(1 - 1/3 + 1/5 - 1/7 + 1/9 - ...).

As you look at this equation, you will see that the equation has a
"form" to it.  The odd numbers in the denominatior, the infinite number
of fractions, the alternating between plus signs and minus signs.  Now
you need to ask yourself, "Do these same features also occur in a
parallel universe"?  Does the "form" of the equation remain in parallel
universes.  We can answer that question in this way.  Liebniz formulated
the equation in the 18th century, so there have been 200+ years of
universes splitting off of our universe in those years and all of those
universes will have the same "form" iof Liebniz' equation, but all of
them will have different values of pi then ours.  That still doesn't
answer our main question as to what changes.  So let us rewrite the
equation with what we suspect doesn't change and see what we get,

pi = 4 units (one unit - unit/3units + unit/5units - unit/7units + ...).

We see that if we change the value of one(unit) we will arrive at a
different value of pi.  This shows that Liebniz' equation shows the
relation****p between pi and the natural numbers.  There are other types
of numbers; imaginary, complex, irrational, etc.  All I am proposing is
that each parallel universe has its own separate natural numbers,
complex numbers, irrational numbers, imaginary numbers, etc.

To read the paper that the above info is based on, go to
http://www.efn.org/~janieg/para61.html.
 Warning, there will be
equations in the paper.

Email me and tell me what you think picrosser@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
 Akerlund
 




 1 Posts in Topic:
Math and Parallel universes
Jim Akerlund <"Ji  2004-03-04 11:54:56 

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